This was a cheeky question from one of our readers. But it is nonetheless valid. God cannot break his own Justice, for the scripture says:
4 The Rock, perfect is his
activity, For all his ways are justice.
A God of faithfulness, with whom there is no injustice; Righteous and upright is he (Deuteronomy 32).
So that answers that. Plainly God cannot sanction or participate in adultery. So how could Mary become pregnant by some entity other than Joseph without adultery being committed? Now, it is no good saying, oh God is not bound by the Law of Moses. God is not a Hypocrite like human religious leaders, or human administrators. He will not sentence us to death if we commit adultery and then merrily go and commit it himself through his wife the holy spirit. So plainly he managed to impregnate Mary without committing adultery. But how could he do this?
Well adultery is the defiling of a married (or engaged) woman with semen other than that of her intended or of her husband. Now all of us human males produce our own unique semen. But God created all of our semen, and is perfectly capable of replicating the semen of Joseph. So we can deduce that God impregnated Mary with the semen of Joseph (she was not allowed any other type!) So Jesus, at conception, was truly a son of Mary and of Joseph and so was truly a son of David..
8 Remember that Jesus Christ was raised up from the dead and was of David's seed, according to the good news I preach (2Timothy2).
Since he was a son of David at conception, he was also a son of Adam at that time. He was also adamic, he was born in sin. For David, speaking as Jesus, declared...
5 Look! With error I was brought forth with birth pains, And in sin my mother conceived me (Psalm 51),
So the conception was precisely what would have occurred had Joseph actually slept with Mary. Then at some future point God must have zapped the genes in the embryo to make them non adamic, but ageing nonetheless, so that Jesus would look like any other human of the time. In fact precisely like a son of Mary and Joseph. God would not have to have changed very much genetic material to make Jesus non adamic. Presumably he made Jesus into the son that Mary and Joseph would have had, had they already received their non adamic bodies. In other words he was son of non adamic David who was alive on Eden2 at the time - see U54, and of real pre fall Adam. Hence he was called the son of the man. Throughout the Gospels the scriptural phrase The son of the man is incorrectly rendered' The son of man'. The man of Genesis 1 was Adam. Whereas man, was preadamic mankind - see U1.
But when precisely did God zap this embryo's genes to make it non adamic?
21 Now when 8 days came to the full for circumcising him, his name was also called Jesus, the name called by the angel before he was conceived in the womb (Luke 2).
Now God cannot name the child until the child is his, i.e. until after he has zapped its genes so as to make the child no longer a son of Adam. God could presumably have replaced Adamic components with pre fall adamic components. This might be the way in which non adamic humans are made.
At any rate once the embryo was implanted in the womb, it was named by God,
so its genes must have been zapped. In fact it would make sense if God zapped
the genes of the fertilised egg just before the first cell division, immediately
after conception and before pregnancy (implantation). In this way he would just
be using the fertilised egg as a vehicle to create a non adamic son of David.
God is merely using an Adamic vehicle to create a non adamic son. He of course has the power to instantly materialise such a being at any age you like. But he chose the more pedantic and less dramatic method of production for Jesus. This was also the way he created Adam in the first place, from pre adamic parents. For if Jesus was the last Adam in some sense, then Adam was the first Jesus in that sense.
45 It is even so written: The first man Adam became a living soul. The last Adam became a life-giving spirit. (1 Corinthians 15 NWT)
18 But the birth of Jesus Christ was in this way. During the time
his mother Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, she was found to be pregnant by holy
spirit before they were united (Matthew 1).
Pregnancy occurs when the fertilised egg is implanted. It is not a sin for a woman to act as a surrogate mother by receiving a fertilised egg, so long as the egg and the sperm are from a married couple. It is fornication for an egg and a sperm from a non married couple to be united. This has an interesting application to fertilisation clinics today. If a married woman is infertile then she can use another woman's womb, but not another woman's egg, and she must use her husband's sperm.