Home | Thanks to God | Welcome | Our History | The Bible Code | Help & Abbreviations | Site Index | Master Chronology | Joining & Leaving Us | Bible Code Forum | Basic Bible Plot | Our Introduction Site | Easy Guide Book | Q & A | Download Site & Fonts | Search This Site

[39] The Word Symbolic Meaning of the Last Supper

Please be sure to read section [15] first. The first question in the symbolic meaning, which is the word symbolism, is: Why are there 4 parallel accounts of the last supper in the Gospels and one more in 1 Corinthians11? The answer is that these stand for 5 different Passover celebrations in various churches. We know this from the Parallel account principle of the code.

Matthew with the meal and one cup and one loaf is the last supper of FDS1
Mark with the meal and one cup and one loaf is the last supper of FDS2 under Bilhah, the EHC
Luke with the meal and the cups and the loaf not associated with either cup is the last supper of FDS2 under Zilphah, the HHC
John with the meal but no cups or loaves mentioned is the last supper of FDS4
1 Corinthians with no meal mentioned and only one cup and one loaf is the last supper of FDS3

The Kingdom of God before Armageddon

All Kingdoms are over mankind on the earth. Everything that Jesus mentions about the kingdom of the heavens and the kingdom of God relates to Christians on the earth. So the Kingdom of God starts after the end of the Gentile Times in Heaven over the earth, over FDS3 on 1918Nisan16. This is when Rutherford is appointed as the first Vassal King on earth of Peter and FDS1 in heaven who are vassals of Jesus, who is the vassal of God. Then between FDS3 and FDS4 there is no kingdom (from 1995Tishri15 to 1995Tishri17), then there is a final heavenly Kingdom over FDS4, then Armageddon, and the Kingdom of God, which is a sort of antitype of the conversion of Cornelius in regnal terms, where the Kingdom which was initially restricted only to true seed of Abraham, then becomes worldwide.